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spanishlearners says

You need to mention the time in the past that this tense happened in (imperfect), is this necessety?

September 5, 2008 from the Web.
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stevestr says

spanishlearners

 

If you are asking if you have to say when an action happened to use the imperfect tense, the answer is no.  For example

Mi madre era una mujer muy fuerte. - My mother was a very strong woman.

September 5, 2008 from the Web.
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joe14 says

here in some sentences for an english word differeent spanish words are used as for to. and as when the sentesces are converted and shown in english i think they are inverted. i am getting quite confused,..

so what to use for to?                                      

in 2 sentences i think its used in different words as 'hacer' and 'ibamos' says used to go?

where's to in this word??

September 27, 2008 from the Web.
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cobre says

Hola Joe14,

The nature of the imperfect is to create a sense of the inevitable, the predictable, the tradition.

Things just keep happening the same old way. 

Whether this is because the action being talked about is due to the habitual response of someone, or the action is cyclic and caught in a loop, or the continuous-continuing option mentioned (an action that takes so long to happen that we saw it start, and know that it will keep happening on up the present and probably will continue on into the future.

In english we can say something "used to" happen to indicate kind of a nostalga for the good old days and express the habitually repetitive nature of a tradition. There is no seperate spanish word for "to" in he text.

and hacer is not under consideration here as an imperfect
Hacer just means "to do, to make" in English that is where that "to" comes from.

Yo nunca sabía hacer eso. (I never knew how to do that. —continuous) It is a typo on the part of the coding crew.

SABIA should have been italicized.

 

September 27, 2008 from the Web.
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