But now I have another question.
If I understood JP correctly, he said that the indirect object of pedir can only be the person you are asking and not the beneficiary of the request.  I always thought that it could be either, for example:
Pídele lache por favor – as him for milk please.
But also
Pídeme leche por favor  - ask for milk for me please. 

Am I totaly wrong?

Ok so we understand that if a feminine noun starts with a stressed “a” “el” is used instead of “la” so that the stressed “a” does not follow the "a" in “la”.  But then Marco gave the example “mucha agua”, which I always hear pronounce as “much agua" .  Is there a reason that it is expectable to have the "a" in “mucha” precede the word “agua” but not the “a” in “la”?  Is it because “much agua” sounds fine but “l agua” (from “la agua”) does not?

No se olviden de poner los ejemplos del "whining si" aquí en el foro.

Gracias.

Si sabes que no me gusta.

Si sabes que lo odio.

Si ya te había dicho que no quería bañarme, no insistas.

Si ya lo habíamos hablado, nadie quiere hacer eso.

Si no ves que está lloviendo.

Si no ves que estamos esperándote.

Si no ves que estoy descansando.
Can't you see that I'm resting.

Si ya te dijo donde me voy.
I already told you where I'm going.

Si ve que he hecho un error, por favor lo corrija.
If you see that I have made a mistake, please correct it.